Please logically explain this ? It makes no sense.?

Exodus 13;19 and Joshua 24;32 both report that Moses brought Joseph,s bones up out of Egypt for burial as Joseph prophesied in Genesis 50;24-5. Yet in Genesis 50;26 Joseph was reported to have been embalmed (Mummified) and was placed in a coffin (sarcophagus)in Egypt. This as Egyptian custom would dictate for a Visor. If Joseph would have been a mummy then how could he have been bone only? Does this show that the translator did not understand exactly what process was performed on Joseph's body? That this was an addition to scriptures? That indeed the flesh would remain on the bone in a mummified state for centuries. Or did Moses actually hack the flesh off of Joseph's bones, break the bones apart and carry these up out of Egypt. Or is this another example of God's miracles usurping the laws of physics and science and voiding the embalming and preparing these bones for Moses?